the referred Qur’ānic verse is translated properly, your question does not
arise. Verse 178 of Sūrah Baqarah reads thus:
O ye who
believe, decreed for you is the qisās of those among you who are killed such
that if the murderer is a free-man, then he [himself] will be executed in lieu
of [the crime] and if he is a slave, then he [himself] in lieu [of the crime]
and if she is a woman then she [herself] in lieu [of the crime].
words, what the verses actually imply is that it is the murderer only who
should pay the penalty for the crime. No one else should be killed is his or
her place. It should be kept in consideration that in the pre-Islamic Arab
society, there were customs in which murderers were let off if they belonged
to a certain tribe or class of society. In their place, some person of an
inferior creed was executed. Sometimes, a slave was executed for the crimes of
his master. At other times, simply no one was executed. This verse actually
stresses total equality in matters of qisās. It is the murderer himself or
herself who must be penalized for the crime he or she has committed.
Consequently, `a woman for a woman' does not at all mean that if a man has
murdered a woman, then in his place a woman should be executed. The man
himself must be put to death.