Question: I have an issue on my mind. The issue is about
whether one can eat meat if the name of Allah is not pronounced at the
slaughter. The concerned verses are generally translated with the word ‘meat’ in
parenthesis:
So eat of [meats] on which Allah’s name has been
pronounced, if you have faith in His Signs. (6:118)
Why should you not eat of [meats] on which Allah’s name
has been pronounced, when He has explained to you in detail what is forbidden to
you -- except under compulsion of necessity? But many do mislead [men] by their
low desires without knowledge. Your Lord knows best those who transgress.
(6:119)
Eat not of [meats] on which Allah’s name has not been
pronounced: That would be impiety. But the evil ones ever inspire their friends
to contend with you if you were to obey them you would indeed be Pagans. (6:121)
My question is: Why is the word ‘meat’ in the verses in
parenthesis when God did not put it there? Isn’t it possible that what is meant
here is simply mentioning the name of God before eating anything, including
meat, vegetables, fruits, etc? The reason I say this is because the actual
Arabic does not contain the word meat, and I think if Allah wanted to say meat,
he could have. Also, it doesn’t say when it should take place, before or after
the slaughter. I look forward to your insight, as I am trying to keep an open
mind on the subject.
|